100 multiple choice questions for criminal justice course

The course isBCJ 562 Police Administration and Management and the questions are listed below

1. The rise of unified, full-time police departments in America was influenced by events in

.a. France

b. England

c. the former Soviet Union

d. Ireland

2. What efforts did Vollmer utilize to improve the caliber of police personnel?

a. police training

b. psychological testing

c. recruiting college students d. all of the above

3. During the 1960s, money was made available from to start junior college and university criminal justice programs.





4. What is the name of the individuals who, during WWII, patrolled to make sure that no lights were showing during “black outs”?

a. air raid wardens

b. carpetbaggers

c. muckrackers

d. civil patrol

5. Following World War II, more women were hired as police officers, working specifically with what category of offenders?

a. bank robbers

b. juvenile delinquents

c. homeless veterans

d. all of the above

6. What agency was formed to archive and disseminate the rapidly growing body of criminal justice knowledge being generated by research?





7. The four-step, problem-solving methodology referred to as SARA stands for .

a. scanning, analysis, response, and assessment

b. searching, articulation, revocation, and analysis c. scanning, assessment, response, attitude

d. system, activation, relation, and analysis

8. The person most often associated with problem-oriented policing is .

a. J. Edgar Hoover b. James Q. Wilson

c. Herman Goldstein

d. George Kelling

9. You are a police officer whose department emphasizes that few crime incidents are isolated, but rather they may be a part of a wider set of urban phenomena. You are probably working in a department whose philosophy is driven what approach to policing?

a. social science b. urban ecology

c. problem-oriented d. incident-driven

10. The crime analysis technique that involves a graphic portrayal of associations and relationships among people is .

a. link analysis

b. strategic crime analysis c. tactical crime analysis d. telephone toll analysis

11. The CompStat program in Minneapolis is referred to as .




d. The Twin City Model

12. While directed patrol usually involves the directing of patrol officers to specific locations during their patrol shift, what type of patrol concentrates additional officers on specific locations at specific times?

a. centered b. saturation c. inundated d. unfocused

13. Which of the following is NOT one of the steps identified in the FBI’s intelligence cycle?

a. analysis and production b. collection

c. planning and direction

d. all of the above are a part of the intelligence cycle

14. Which of the following forms of terrorism involves actions conducted by a group within a nation?

a. state terrorism

b. domestic terrorism

c. transnational terrorism d. international terrorism

15. Which of the following is an example of domestic terrorism?

a. Cuban DGI

b. KKK


d. British M-9

16. The concept of a “holy war” is known as .

a. terrorism

b. hate crime c. jihad

d. IED

17. Harms inflicted on a victim by an offender whose motivation derives primarily from hatred directed at a perceived characteristic of the victim are known as .

a. bias crimes

b. prejudicial crimes c. bigoted crimes

d. hate crimes

18. White-supremacist groups’ use of the Internet to recruit potential members and spread their message of hate is referred to as .

a. digital hate b. mobile hate

c. electronic hate d. 4G hate

19. What U.S. Supreme Court decision further required that legal counsel be appointed for all indigent defendants in all criminal cases?

a. Furman v. Georgia b. Miranda v. Illinois

c. Gideon v. Wainwright d. Mapp v. Ohio

20. The legally defined roles of city councils are fairly consistent throughout the United States.

Namely, they act as the .

a. chief executive and policy-making body b. chief legislative and policy-making body

c. chief administrative and policy-making body d. chief executive and legislative-making body

21. According to Wilson, the service style is most often found in .

a. homogenous suburban communities b. rural and agricultural areas

c. economically declining cities with traditional political machines

d. cities with heterogeneous populations and reform oriented professional government

22. In the form of local government, the employment of the Chief of Police is largely tied to the whims of the mayor.

a. strong mayor b. weak mayor c. city manager d. city council

23. The state does not have overall responsibility for the supervision of the police.

a. judiciary

b. citizen oversight committee c. prosecutor

d. sheriff

24. Private groups and public interest organizations, such as the ACLU, have been involved in attacking .

a. community disorder b. school violence

c. terrorism

d. police misconduct

25. Twenty-five percent of all undocumented immigrants in the U.S. illegally reside in .

a. Texas

b. Arizona

c. California

d. New Mexico

26. Scientific management is properly associated with .

a. Weber b. Taylor c. Gulick

d. Mooney and Reiley

27. Weber’s three types of authority are .

a. rational-legal, traditional, charismatic b. sanctity, heroic, exemplary

c. legitimate, arbitrary, capricious d. just, capricious, whimsical

28. Open systems cannot absorb all informational and other inputs. Excesses of inputs would overwhelm them. Therefore, open systems have what selective mechanism that filters out some potential inputs and attunes them to important signals from the environment?

a. coding

b. screening c. absorption

d. gate keeping

29. With regard to authority, the concept that people are responsible for directing certain tasks, despite the fact that this means the authority of the supervisor might cut across organizational lines, is referred to as .

a. functional structure b. exception principle c. functional exception

d. supervision principle

30. Which organizational theory stresses that all agencies must get the resources they need to operate from the larger environment, creating resource dependency?

a. Environmental dependency theory b. Ecological dependency theory

c. Community dependence theory d. Resource dependency theory

31. Organizational design focuses on two spatial levels of differentiation, they are .

a. lateral and diagonal b. tall and flat

c. activity and geography d. vertical and horizontal

32. The term used to most accurately describe the number of personnel a supervisor can personally manage effectively is .

a. span of control b. vertical control

c. span of management d. vertical management

33. Which of the following is NOT an important characteristic of the informal organization?

a. naturalness

b. social distance c. leadership

d. sympathy

34. Which group does NOT appear on organizational charts, but exists in every organization?

a. the line b. the staff

c. intelligence analysts

d. the informal organization

35. The type of police organizational design increases organizational complexity.

a. line structure

b. functional structure

c. administrative structure d. matrix structure

36. You work in a police department where the chief is very fair-minded and believes in a collaborative approach to problem-solving. This chief prefers to use which type of power?

a. personalized b. autocratic

c. democratic d. laissez-faire

37. Which of the following values do transformational leaders emphasize to motivate followers?

a. honesty b. esteem c. fairness

d. all of the above

38. The reasons, intentions, and objectives that underlie the use of power is known as .

a. power motivation b. power rationale

c. motivation hypothesis d. human relations

39. Which leadership style is known as the “my way or the highway” leader?

a. authoritarian b. democratic

c. laissez-faire

d. none of the above

40. is the consistent demonstration of moral values through personal actions, interpersonal communications, and the communication of values to followers.

a. Servant leadership b. Spiritual leadership c. Authentic leadership d. Ethical leadership

41. The dominant tradition in planning is .

a. radical

b. incremental c. transactive d. synoptic

42. Who developed the concept of bounded rationality?

a. Lindblom b. Simon

c. Gore

d. Blasdell

43. What are the three sides to Simon’s concept of bounded rationality?

a. values, knowledge, skills, habits, and reflections forgotten b. strategic, cost-effectiveness, and must-haves

c. cost effectiveness, must-wants, and long-term impact d. cost-effectiveness, must-haves, and outcome

44. Which decision-making model is highly criticized as being too simplistic and nonscientific?

a. heuristic b. rational

c. timeliness

d. incremental

45. Which error in decision-making satisfies immediate needs and brushes aside doubts of their long-range wisdom?

a. oversimplification

b. preconceived notions

c. cognitive nearsightedness d. reluctance to decide

46. Under what conditions may individuals not avail themselves of the provisions of the Family and Medical Leave Act?

a. care of a newborn child b. adoption of a child

c. care of a son or daughter

d. care of a close friend with whom the employee has been involved in a relationship for more than five years

47. What act restricts the use of the polygraph?

a. Family Medical Leave Act b. Fair Labor Standards Act

c. Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act d. Employee Polygraph Protection Act

48. The ADEA has a law enforcement exemption provision that states local units of government can refuse to hire a person for a sworn position if the applicant .

a. is over their maximum age for hiring

b. the refusal to hire was part of a bona fide hiring or retirement plan c. the refusal to hire was not a subterfuge to evade ADEA’s purposes d. all of the above.

49. Which of the following is NOT an example of a reasonable accommodation by employers?

a. modifying work facilities b. modifying work schedules c. redesigning jobs

d. reducing job qualifications

50. What is the purpose of a discipline matrix?

a. to develop consistency in discipline b. to allow for increased discretion

c. to reduce reliance on aggravated circumstances d. all of the above

51. The most efficient means of downward communication is .

a. oral and written communication combined b. oral communication only

c. written communication only d. the use of the bulletin board

52. Which statement about male and female styles in conflict resolution is MOST accurate?

a. Females are competitive and prone to conflict whereas males are cooperative and given to affiliation.

b. Women are more comfortable using language for self-display and men are more comfortable using language to express rapport.

c. Women handle conflict in a nonconfrontational conciliatory and nonphysical manner. d. Female behavior typically entails contests which include combat, struggle, conflict,

competition, and contention.

53. of NYPD employees can speak a second language.

a. One half

b. One fourth c. One third d. One sixth

54. Which of the following is NOT a type of downward communication?

a. job instruction b. job rationale

c. job clarification d. indoctrination

55. In terms of the operation of a “grapevine” as a form of communication, which type of grapevine communication involves the following scenario: A tells B, who tells C, who tells D?

a. single strand b. gossip chain

c. probability chain d. cluster chain

56. Which of the following is considered to be a problem with advances in electronic communication?

a. makes it difficult to build a strong culture

b. makes it difficult to develop solid working relationships

c. allows for new avenues for dysfunctional employee behavior d. all of the above

57. During which phase of group interaction do group members comment on the negative aspects of the group and its problem-solving ability?

a. the conflict phase

b. the emergence phase

c. the reinforcement phase d. none of the above

58. Which of the following is NOT one of the four phases in group interaction?

a. orientation b. conflict

c. consensus

d. reinforcement

59. Which is NOT one of the three categories under which bargaining may be conducted?

a. unfair labor practices b. mandatory

c. permissive

d. illegal topics of bargaining

60. Which is NOT one of the three simplified models of public employee collective bargaining?

a. binding arbitration model b. meet & confer model

c. bargaining not required model d. due process model

61. What is the biggest hammer in any union’s toolbox?

a. work slowdowns b. court injunction c. work stoppage

d. work speedups

62. The union has encouraged all police officers to strictly enforce minor traffic violations that are usually ignored. This is an example of a .

a. work acceleration b. work speed up

c. work frenzy

d. work enhancement

63. Which of the following general types of binding arbitration laws includes situations where an arbiter must award the final offer made by one of the parties and is not free to craft a compromise position?

a. issue by issue arbitration

b. final offer issue by issue arbitration c. total package arbitration

d. complete package arbitration

64. What is the name of the law that opened up previously-closed bargaining sessions to the general public?

a. sunshine law b. open-door law

c. open-bargaining law d. public-bargaining law

65. Negotiation between an employer and a labor union, usually regarding issues such as wages, benefits, hours, and working conditions, is referred to as .

a. job action

b. binding arbitration c. grievance

d. collective bargaining

66. Which of the following is NOT a common type of citizen oversight agency?

a. police auditors

b. civilian compliance boards c. neighborhood watch groups d. all of the above

67. The oldest, simplest type of budget format is .

a. ZBB

b. programmatic c. line-item


68. Assume a budget period runs from October 1, 2011, until September 30, 2012. It is properly referred to as .

a. Dillon’s fiscal year b. a biennium

c. FY ‘11 d. FY ‘12

69. The single most important political statement made by any unit of government in a given year is the .

a. budget it adopts

b. state of the union address

c. civil service regulations it issues d. ordinances it adopts

70. Who approves budget and it becomes effective?

a. appropriators

b. police department’s budget officer c. state’s fiscal monitoring system

d. city council

71. The audit .

a. is the last phase of the budget cycle b. is intended to be embarrassing

c. always focuses only on financial matters

d. is conducted by the sheriff’s budget officer

72. A budget is .

a. a contract between the appropriators and the department b. translating financial resources into human purposes

c. an estimate of future expenditures d. to some degree, all of the above

73. When a police department’s budget format incorporates a variety of orientations which are blended together to meet its particular needs, it is properly referred to as .

a. hybrid

b. line-item c. program d. ZBB

74. Which of the following is typically included in an operating budget?

a. fringe benefits b. uniforms

c. telephone service d. all of the above

75. Which of the following is NOT a common method of adjusting a budget?

a. reallocating funds from one category to another

b. seeking a budget amendment to provide supplemental funds c. freezing expenditures

d. cutting employee benefits

76. Selye has formulated what he calls the “general adaptation syndrome” to describe how the biological level of stress can incapacitate an individual. Which statement is NOT part of the “general adaptation syndrome?”

a. insistence b. alarm

c. resistance d. exhaustion

77. A type A personality type exhibits all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:

a. continuous pressure to accomplish b. friendly and easy-going

c. intense and ambitious d. continuous impatience

78. According to a study completed by Violanti and Aron, the most potent stressor indicated by police officers was .

a. a fellow officer being killed b. a physical attack

c. a battered child

d. the killing of someone in the line of duty

79. Drug symptoms can manifest itself in the following ways EXCEPT?

a. baldness b. mania

c. psychosis d. aggresion

80. Police officers and those who are under investigation are times more likely to kill themselves.

a. 10.2 b. 6.7 c. 15

d. 20

81. Which of the following is NOT accurate as it relates to police officer domestic violence?

a. There are no guidelines in the pre-employment screening and investigation of police applicants to assist in determining whether they are prone to engaging in domestic violence.

b. During the background investigation, a check should be made for restraining orders issued in any jurisdiction where a police candidate has lived.

c. The department must be clear with all officers when it comes to domestic violence that the department has a zero tolerance policy.

d. The department needs to provide officers and their families with non-punitive avenues of support and assistance when incidents of domestic violence occur.

82. Which of the following is the most common method that officers use to commit suicide?

a. sleeping pills b. hanging

c. service weapon

d. automobile crash

83. Which of the following is listed in the text as contributing to officers’ consideration of suicide or development of mental illness?

a. exposure to horrific events b. divorce

c. shift work

d. all of the above

84. An intentional tort differs from negligence in that .

a. an intentional tort is really a voluntary act such as assault or malicious prosecution b. an intentional tort includes the act of being negligent

c. an intentional tort is punishable by fine and imprisonment

d. an intentional tort rarely violates constitutional rights whereas negligence almost always involves the violation of the Bill of Rights

85. The 1978 landmark case applying Title 42, U.S. Code, Section 1983, to municipalities and other local government units was .

a. Bivens v. the Drug Enforcement Administration b. Monell v. Department of Social Services

c. City of Canton v. Harris d. Arnett v. Kennedy

86. Whistleblower statuses protect an employee’s rights under the Amendment.

a. First

b. Fourth

c. Eleventh

d. Fourteenth

87. rights have been loosely defined as those involving the protection and defense of one’s good name, reputation, and position in the community.

a. Liberty b. Property

c. Substantive d. Procedural

88. Termination of high-speed pursuit policies generally falls into one of three models. Which of the following is NOT one of those three models?

a. judgmental b. supervisory c. restrictive

d. discouragement

89. The curriculum developed by the Washington State Criminal Justice Commission instructs the police on how to handle emotionally disturbed people and includes all of the following EXCEPT:

a. recognizing abnormal behavior b. dealing with suicidal subjects

c. awareness of community services d. quasi-counseling skills

90. Material posted to social network sites can be used to impeach an officer’s credibility. As a general rule, which of the following tips applies to police use of social network sites?

a. do not post pictures of yourself in police uniform b. do not post pictures of your police equipment

c. do not post pictures of you with a friend who is disrobed d. all of the above

91. Which of the following is NOT a factor that most frequently determines the extent of pursuit-related liability?

a. purpose of pursuit b. driving conditions c. excessive speed

d. area of pursuit

92. In the 1990s many police departments changed their vehicle pursuit policies to make them more restrictive as a result of numerous lawsuits. This dramatic change from one set of rules to another is called a .

a. model change b. model shift

c. paradigm shift d. legal change

93. Which of the following statements is most accurate with regard to the organizational development (OD) methodology?

a. it focuses on individuals

b. it focuses on individual units c. it focuses on leaders

d. it focuses on whole systems

94. Under which of the following circumstances should organizational change be delayed or abandoned?

a. The knowledge, skill, or other resources needed to carry out the change effectively do not exist inside the department.

b. An appropriately experienced external change agent is not presently available. c. The effort of making the change is greater than any benefits to be derived.

d. all of the above

95. Which is a model of direct change?

a. Lewin’s Three-Step model

b. authoritive action research model c. action model

d. research model

96. The concept of Organizational Development (OD) is grounded largely in:

a. business

b. mathematics

c. behavioral sciences

d. the study of governmental structures

97. Which of the following might be useful during the assessment step in the traditional action research model?

a. surveys of personnel

b. review of disciplinary records c. training records

d. all of the above

98. Which model regarding change examines the influence of officers’ ascribed and achieved status attributes?

a. life experiences model

b. officer subculture model c. organizational model

d. structural model

99. The heart of unfreezing is making people be receptive to .

a. change

b. new leadership c. change agents

d. none of the above

100. Which of the following is NOT an argument commonly made for involving rank-and-file officers in the decision-making process?

a. it identifies who should be considered for promotion b. it heightens morale

c. it develops democratic skills and habits d. it makes for better decisions


Do you need a similar assignment done for you from scratch? We have qualified writers to help you. We assure you an A+ quality paper that is free from plagiarism. Order now for an Amazing Discount!
Use Discount Code “Newclient” for a 15% Discount!

NB: We do not resell papers. Upon ordering, we do an original paper exclusively for you.

The post 100 multiple choice questions for criminal justice course appeared first on Top Premier Essays.